This does not seem consistent with Jesus' answer to the Pharisees regarding divorce. Jesus plainly states that divorce was permitted only because our hearts are hard, but that the Law clearly defined marriage from the beginning. The Levirite marriage law is the only case given where polygamy is conceivably permitted, and that depends on interpreting that law without Genesis. The captive bride law has a "see, desire, take" structure and onerous restrictions that highlight the injustice of such a marriage and communicate that it is a sintherefore a law explicitly put in place to mitigate an evil practice. (Which brings up interesting questions regarding idealist versus pragmatist takes on law, but does not change how marriage is defined in the Old Testament.) The law regarding rape/sexual immorality and marriage is a strawman from progressives. They ignore that a rape or consensual fling in a remote place is the only thing for which a man can be punished without multiple witnesses. When it occurs in the city, there is an assumption of consent because there is an assumption that a man would intervene to protect a woman if she called for help. (The Gospel Coalition had an article earlier this year debunking that progressive argument on this basis.)

This article brings up solid reasons why polygamy existed, but it presents a rather weak defense of biblical authority and morality. I think there are much better arguments that concede laws less ground. (Not even getting into the differences between descriptive and prescriptive textsI think it's clear that Lamech, Abraham, Jacob, and David are not positive examples in this respect. Additionally, Jewish interpreters attach great importance to Isaac's monogamy and peace in the promised land.)