I appreciate that this article did not make the common error of equating polygyny with Biblical adultery.

Instead, the article simply and accurately points out that marriage is the life-long, one-flesh union of one man and one woman.

While a man is technically able to (but generally shouldn't) enter into more one marriage covenant simultaneously, the woman is absolutely never permitted to do so.

Certain Biblical laws are different for men and women, reflecting their differing created natures, roles, and responsibilities within God's good Order.

The Bible is both clear, and consistent on this issue. The Bible treats polygyny (traditional polygamy) as legitimate marriage, not adultery or sexual immorality.

Please note that I believe monogamy is clearly the normal pattern for marriage. I also believe it is preferable. I am further persuaded that the slaves of Jesus Christ ought to be content with one wife, and not crave, or seek more.

Still, the Bible says what it says.

The Bible defines adultery as a man having sexual intercourse with the wife of another.

Here are a few passages showing this definition. Lev. 18:20, Lev. 20:10, Deut. 22:22, Genesis 20:3, Proverbs chapters 6-7, Romans 7:2-3, 1st Thess. 4:6, 1st Cor. 7:11, Exodus 20:10, Deuteronomy 5:10

The Lord Jesus seems to uphold this definition in the Sermon on the Mount. In Matthew 5:27-28, He uses the Greek word for married woman/wife when equating lust with adultery of the heart.

Let's consider a few examples.

The Bible tells us that our father Jacob was married to both Leah and Rachel at the same time. The Bible treats both unions as legitimate (Bilhah and Zilpah too). The women were not married to each other, but each only to Jacob.

At creation, God blessed our first parents Adam and Eve, bidding them "be fruitful and multiply".

God seems to recognize the legitimacy of Jacob's polygamous household and marriages by blessing him in the same way (Genesis 35:11) saying "be fruitful and multiply".

We see the same principle in the case of king David. He had many wives (more than ten) and yet the entirety of his life was said to be pleasing to God (see 1st Kings 15:5) except when he committed adultery with Bathsheba, the wife of Uriah.

God treated David's adultery and polygamy in totally different ways. God severely rebuked and disciplined David for the adultery, but seems to have approved of the polygamy.

Lets take a look at the passage, found in 2nd Samuel chapter 12.

The parable of the rich man with many sheep (David with many wives) and the poor man with one lamb (Uriah with one wife Bathsheba) simply assumes that David's polygamy was legitimate. Nathan the prophet of God has no issue with it. The issue that matters is the adultery. David violated Uriah's wife and murdered Uriah to cover it up. In the adultery (not the polygamy), God said that David "despised" Him (verse 10).

Contrast that with verse 8 where God said that He gave multiple women (deceased Saul's wives) into David's "bosom". God also said that He had even been previously willing to give David even more (wives, lands, houses, etc).

Contrary to the suggestion of some commentators, these marriages of David to some of Saul's widows are certainly genuine marriages. David is described as having had them in the same way (in his bosom) that Uriah was described as having Bathsheba in verse 3 (in his bosom).

Obviously David's polygamy with Michal, Abigail, Ahinoam, etc is totally different than when he took the wife of another man (adultery).

Let's take a look at one more example of God apparently approving of polygyny. It is the case of Abimelech with Sarah (wife of Abraham) in Genesis 20. As you recall, Abimelech took Sarah into his harem after Abraham deceived him about the fact that they were married.

Note that Abimelech was already a married man when this incident happened. Verse 17 talks about his wife and maidservants/concubines.

Before Abimelech had an opportunity to have relations with Sarah, God intervened. In verse 3, God tells Abimelech that He will kill him because Sarah is a married woman (not because of polygamy, but adultery).

Abimelech pleads that he acted in innocence, not knowing that Sarah was married due to Abraham's deception.

In verse 5, Abimelech said that he had acted in "integrity" of heart, thinking he was engaging in polygamy not adultery.

Here's the kicker. God agreed with Abimelech in verse 6, explicitly saying that He knew Abimelech had acted in "integrity" of heart. Apparently, it is possible for a polygamous (but never adulterous) man to act with integrity of heart.

The mainstream traditional teaching isn't quite Biblical is it? I'm sure you are shocked to hear me say these things.

This does matter. God is at work bringing Muslims to saving faith in the Lord Jesus Christ.

What is the polygamous former Muslim man to do, once he is redeemed by Christ?

Some would command him to put away all wives but the first. I am persuaded that would violate the command of God. That which God really has joined together should not be parted. Those are genuine marriages, and God hates divorce.

Instead, I would instruct this new believer to be a good husband and father to his existing family. I would instruct him not to crave or seek any more wives, but to gratefully cherish the ones he has to the glory of Christ, seeking to love them as Christ loves the Church.

I would also tell him that he cannot become an elder/overseer or deacon due to his polygamy.

I would further instruct him that his children are holy, children of the Covenant like all of Israel's 12 sons (from 4 women). As father and husband he has a wonderful and glorious role to play in helping build up the Kingdom of God. His marriages can be godly ones.

That's totally opposite what I would tell a formerly adulterous or homosexual man who comes to Christ. He absolutely has to terminate those previous abominable relationships.

These are some things for your consideration.
Carefully examine the Bible like the Bereans. See if what I am saying rings true.

Ecclesia Semper Reformanda

Soli Deo Gloria!